How can I prove the following inequality $$\int_{0}^{\pi}\bigg|\frac{\sin(nx)}{x}\bigg|\,dx\geq\frac{2}{\pi}(1+\cdots+\frac{1}{n})$$ Where $n \in\mathbb{N}$. I have tried to use the given theorem $$\int_{a}^{b}f(x)g(x)\,dx=f(c)\int_{a}^{b}g(x)\,dx$$ where $ c \in (a,b).$
After putting $c=\frac{\pi}{2}$ I am able to get $\frac{2}{\pi}$ coefficient in the right-hand side but after that I am unable to deduce the summation part of the given problem. How can I deduce any summation in the given problem? Also, if there is any other way to prove the problem, please explain it.
Note $$ [0,\pi]=\bigcup_{k=0}^{n-1}\bigg[\frac{k\pi}n,\frac{(k+1)\pi}n\bigg]$$ and hence \begin{eqnarray} &&\int_{0}^{\pi}\bigg|\frac{\sin(nx)}{x}\bigg|\,dx\\ &=&\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\int_{\frac{k\pi}n}^{\frac{(k+1)\pi}n}\bigg|\frac{\sin(nx)}{x}\bigg|\,dx\\ &\overset{n(x-\frac{k\pi}n)\to x}=&\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\int_{0}^{\pi}\bigg|\frac{\sin(x)}{x+k\pi}\bigg|\,dx\ge\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\int_{0}^{\pi}\frac{\sin(x)}{(k+1)\pi}\,dx\\ &\geq&\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\frac{2}{(k+1)\pi}=\frac{2}{\pi}(1+\cdots+\frac{1}{n}). \end{eqnarray}