I have stumbled upon the following reasoning, but I'm not sure if it's correct. Here it goes: Domain X
- $\forall x :\phi(x)⟹\gamma(x)$
- Let $E\subseteq X⟹[\forall x\in E :\phi(x)⟹\gamma(x)]$
- Suppose I know, by some property of $E$, that $\forall x\in E :\phi(x)$, that is for every $x\in E$, $\phi(x)$ is true.
- [$\forall x\in E :\phi(x)] ⟹ \phi(x)$ (by universal instantation)
- ⟹ $\gamma(x)$ (by universal instantation of 2. and by 4.)
- ⟹ $\forall x\in E :\gamma(x)$ (by universal generalization)
- Therefore: [$\forall x\in E :\phi(x)⟹\gamma(x)]\wedge [\forall x\in E :\phi(x)] ⟹ \forall x\in E :\gamma(x)$
It's like I have distributed the quantifier over the implication. Is this correct?
$\forall x \in E (\phi(x) \implies \gamma(x)) \land (\forall x \in E : \phi(x))\implies \forall x \in E : \gamma(x))$
$\forall x \in E (\phi(x) \implies \gamma(x)) \implies [(\forall x \in E : \phi(x))\implies (\forall x \in E : \gamma(x))]$