I am confused about the proof of the following theorem which is found in Evans' PDEs, Chapter 6.3.
Theorem 3(the infinite differentiability in the interior). Assume $$ a^{ij},b^i,c\in C^\infty(U),(i,j=1,...,n) $$ and $f\in C^\infty(U)$. Suppose $u\in H^1(U)$ is a weak solution of the ellipctic PDE $$ Lu=f \quad\text{in }U $$ Then $u\in C^\infty(U)$.
Proof: From Theorem 2, we have $u\in H^m_{loc}(U)$ for each $m=1,2,....$. By General sobolev inequality, we have $u\in C^k(U)$ for each $k=1,2,...,$.
I don't understand why we can say "$u\in C^k(U)$ for each $k=1,2,...$". The Sobolev inequality should only give us that $u\in C_{loc}^k(U)$.
This is because of the notation choice of Evans, which you can find in Appendix A at the back of the book. Specifically, we have the definition
$$ C^k(U) := \{ u : U \to \mathbb R \mid u \text{ is } k\text{-times continuously differentiable} \} $$ In particular, the function is allowed to explode at the boundary, if $U$ is an open domain. Therefore, a function in $C^k_{\text{loc}}(U) $, under Evans' notation, is a function in $C^k(U)$. Here's a partial list for comparison (again, for the full list see Appendix A)