One of my favourite little math problems is this
$x^{x^{x^{x^{...}}}}=2$
The solution to it is quite simple. An infinite tower of x's is equal to 2, and above the first x there is still an infinite tower of x's, so the equation can be simplified to
$x^2=2 \Rightarrow x= \sqrt2$
(Note: this only works iff $ e^{-e} \leq x \leq e^{\frac{1}{e}} $)
Now, what if instead of an infinite exponentiation it would be an infinite summation, like this:
$x+x+x+x+...=2$
If we try solve it the same way as the exponentiation one: An infinite sum of x's is equal to 2, and after the first x there is still an infinite sum of x's, so the equation can be simplified to
$x+2=2$
From which it follows that $x=0$, but surely it can't be that $0+0+0+0+...=2$
Is this because $0+0+0+0+... = 0 \times \infty $, which is indeterminate? Or what is going on?
What you have is a correct argument that IF $x$ is such that $x+x+\cdots=2$, then $x=0$.
However, this does not necessarily mean that the converse is true: You have no argument that if $x=0$ then $x+x+\cdots=2$.
So your argument, in combination with the easy fact that $0+0+\cdots\ne 2$, shows you that there is NO $x$ such that $x+x+\cdots=2$.
This has nothing to do with being "indeterminate". It is plain and unambiguous that $0+0+\cdots$ is $0$. When we say that $0\times \infty$ is indeterminate, the only thing we mean is that when you have a limit of the form $\lim_x f(x)g(x)$ where $f(x)$ goes to $0$ and $g(x)$ goes to $\infty$, then knowing the limits of $f$ and $g$ does not tell you what the limit of the product will be. In particular "indeterminate" does not mean that $\lim_x f(x) g(x)$ itself is somehow bad or doesn't exist -- only that you need to work harder to find it than just taking the limits of $f$ and $g$ separately.