Suppose there are finitely many primes $\{p_1, \ldots, p_k\}$ which are $11 \pmod {12}$ and consider $p = (p_1 \cdots p_k)^2 + 10$. Then $p_i \nmid p$ for any $i \leq k$, and $p \equiv 1 + 10 \equiv 11 \bmod 12$. Then $p$ is either a prime itself, contradiction, or $p$ has all prime divisors of the form $12n + 1, 12n + 5, 12n + 7, 12n + 11$. Not all prime factor are of the forms $12n + 1, 5, 7$ because then $p \equiv 1, 5, 7 \mod 12$. So it must have a prime factor $12n + 11$, but $p_i \nmid p$ and so we have a contradiction.
Is this proof valid?
$p\equiv 11\pmod {12}\iff p=11+12n$. The statement is then an application of Dirichlet's theorem on arithmetic progressions. However you are asking here about your proof.
Well, look at the four first primes equal to $11$ modulo $12$ i.e. $11,23,47$ and $59$. Do you have
$$p=11^2\cdot23^2\cdot47^2\cdot59^2+10=492199062971=7\cdot11^3\cdot127\cdot415969$$ And you have these four prime factors are of the form $12n+7,12n+11,12n+5$ and $12n+1$ respectively.
Following your reasoning, in fact $492199062971\equiv{11}\pmod{12}$ however, no fifth prime of the required form appears in your expression for $p$.
I fear your nice attempt is not correct.