It is a traditional result that \[ \lim_{n \to \infty} \int_{A}^{\infty} f_{n}(t) dt = \int_{A}^{\infty} f(t) dt \] if $f_{n}(t) \to f(t)$ for each $t$ and there exists an integrable function $\phi(t)$ satisfying \[ |f_{n}(t)| \leq \phi(t) \] for all sufficiently large $n$.
On the other hands, as a undergrad student, I remember reading in a book by T.M. Apostol that the uniform convergence of integrals can somehow replace the domination condition; uniform convergence of improper integrals is defined as follows; given $\epsilon > 0$, there exists a $B$ such that whenever $B_{1}, B_{2} > B$, \[ |\int_{B_{1}}^{B_{2}}f_{n}(t)dt | < \epsilon \] for all $n$.
Is my memory correct?
Certainly! If $f_n \to f$ uniformly and the improper integrals converge uniformly then $\int_A ^{\infty } f_n (t) dt \to \int_A ^{\infty } f (t) dt$ and the proof is very simple. You just have to split the integrals into those over $(A,B)$ and $(B,\infty )$.