I have to solve $$\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{rie^{it}}{re^{it}-a}dt.$$ There are many solutions to this but they all use Cauchy's integral formula, or residue theorem which I am not allowed to use. I also don't like the series expansion solutions. Is there a way to directly calculate it? If $r=a=1$ then I can multiply by $ \frac{e^{ \frac{-it}{2} }}{e^{ \frac{-it}{2} }}$ and then by $\frac{e^{it/2}+e^{-it/2}}{e^{it/2}+e^{-it/2}}$ and then the bottom becomes just the $\cos$. But if these values are not nice I get stuck.
2026-04-01 13:14:38.1775049278
$\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{rie^{it}}{re^{it}-a}dt$ without Cauchy integral theorem, residues, series.
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Split into two cases: $|a|>1$ and $|a|<1$. In each case one can check that the integral $I(a)$ satisfies $I'(a) = \int_{0}^{2\pi} \frac{ d}{dt} p(t) dt$ for an explicit periodic function $p(t) = (r e^{it} -a)^{-1}$. Thus $I'(a)= p(2\pi)-p(0) =0$ in both cases. This shows that the integral is constant in each of the two cases. Now determine the values of those two constants. In one case you can set $a=0$ to evaluate the constant $I(0)$. In the other case let $|a|\to \infty$ to see $I(\infty)=0$.