So guys I have this improper integral $\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{x}{x^3+1}dx$. I checked that it converges by $ \int_{0}^{1}\frac{x}{x^3+1}dx + \int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{x}{x^3+1}dx $ and using the $\frac{c}{(x-a)^\lambda} $ and $\frac{1}{x^\lambda} $ criteria. But for finding the value I have trouble.I tried $ \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{x}{(x+1)(x^2-x+1)}dx$ and $\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{tg\alpha}{tg\alpha^3+1}dx$ but it gets me nowhere. Any ideas on solving it?
$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{x}{x^3+1}dx$ =?
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If $I=\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{x}{x^3+1}dx$ then $2I=\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{2x-x^2+x^2}{x^3+1}dx$=$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{2x-x^2}{x^3+1}dx$+$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{x^2}{x^3+1}dx.$ The secod itegral is easy and can be solved by substituting $u=x^3+1$. For the first write $$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{2x-x^2}{x^3+1}dx=\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{(x+1)-(x^2-x+1)}{(x+1)(x^2-x+1)}dx=\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2-x+1}dx-\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x+1}dx$$ but for the $\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x^2-x+1}dx$=$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(x-\frac{1}{2})^2+\frac{3}{4}}dx$ which is of the form $\int \frac{1}{u^2+a^2}du=\frac{1}{a}\arctan(\frac{u}{a})+c.$
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The other answers have already shown elementary methods, so I will just add that we actually have $$ \int_0^{\infty} \frac{x^a \, dx}{1+x^b} = \frac{\pi}{b\sin\left(\frac{\pi(a+1)}{b}\right)}$$ for all $a, b$ such that the integral converges. Unfortunately this is not easy to show without complex analysis. It requires knowledge of the Beta function.
One thing that simplifies the computation is splitting the integral and substituting $y = x^{-1}$ in one part:
$$\begin{align} \int_0^\infty \frac{x}{x^3+1}\,dx &= \int_0^1\frac{x}{x^3+1}\,dx + \int_1^\infty \frac{x}{x^3+1}\,dx\\ &= \int_0^1 \frac{x}{x^3+1}\,dx + \int_1^0 \frac{y^{-1}}{y^{-3}+1}\,d(y^{-1})\\ &= \int_0^1 \frac{x}{x^3+1}\,dx + \int_0^1 \frac{1}{y^3+1}\,dy\\ &= \int_0^1 \frac{dx}{x^2 -x+1}. \end{align}$$
This can be seen to be related to an $\arctan$.