Are there any positive nonzero integer solutions to $(a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n)^n=a_1a_2\cdots a_n$ for $n>1$?
If it helps, there are no solutions for $n=2$ because, otherwise, if $a_1$ and $a_2$ were both odd then $(a_1+a_2)^{2}$ would be even and $a_1a_2$ would be odd, and if $a_1$ were odd and $a_2$ were even or vice versa then $(a_1+a_2)^{2}$ would be odd and $a_1a_2$ would be even, and if $a_1$ and $a_2$ were both even then $a_1/2$ and $a_2/2$ would also solve the equation so there would exist a solution with at least one of them odd.
The answer follows immediately from AM-GM inequality. You are given that $a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_n$ are positive. From AM-GM, it follows that $$ \frac{a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n}{n} \geq \sqrt[n]{a_1a_2\cdots a_n}.$$ i.e. $$ \left( a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n \right)^n \geq n^n \left(a_1a_2\cdots a_n \right).$$ Given that $\left( a_1 + a_2 + \cdots + a_n \right)^n = a_1 a_2 \cdots a_n$, we get $a_1 a_2 \cdots a_n \geq n^n a_1 a_2 \cdots a_n$. Hence, we have $n^n \leq 1$. Hence, it is true only when $n=1$.