I have been trying some questions on Riemann integration.
But there is a pattern in some questions which I am finding pretty much confusing.For instance, this function is from my textbook which defines a function f on [$0$,$1$] as
$$f(x)=2rx, \frac{1}{(r+1)}\lt x \lt\frac{1}{r}$$ where r is a natural number.
It has been asked to show that this function is Riemann Integrable on [$0,1$].
We know that the function must be defined and bounded on an interval where it is Integrable. But here how do we know that this function is bounded when it is not even defined at some of the points?
Help please!