I've been trying to solve the following integral for days now.
$$P = \int_0^\infty \frac{\ln(x)}{(x+c)(x-1)} dx$$
with $c > 0$. I figured out (numerically, by accident) that if $c = 1$, then $P = \pi^2/4$. But why? And more importantly: what's the general solution of $P$, for given $c$? I tried partial fraction expansions, Taylor polynomials for $ln(x)$ and more, but nothing seems to work. I can't even figure out where the $\pi^2/4$ comes from.
(Background: for a hobby project I'm building a machine learning algorithm that predicts sports match scores. Somehow the breaking point is this integral, so solving it would get things moving again.)
$$\bbox[10pt, border:2px, lightblue]{\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln x}{(x+c)(x-1)}dx=\frac{\pi^2+\ln^2 c}{2(1+c)},\ \ c>0}$$ A nice solution can be found here due to Yaghoub Sharifi.
Perhaps it might be into your interest to see a solution for the following integral: $$I(a,b)=\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln x}{(x+a)(x+b)}dx\overset{x\to \frac{ab}{x}}=\int_0^\infty \frac{\ln\left(\frac{ab}{x}\right)}{(x+a)(x+b)}dx$$ Summing up the two integrals from above gives: $$2I(a,b)=\ln(ab)\int_0^\infty \frac{1}{(x+a)(x+b)}dx\Rightarrow \boxed{I(a,b)=\frac{\ln(ab)}{2}\frac{\ln\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)}{a-b},\ \ a,b>0}$$ One might force putting $a=c, b=-1$ in the above and take $\ln(-1)=i\pi$ (the principal value). $$\Rightarrow I(c,-1)=\frac{\ln^2 c-\ln^2 (-1)}{2(c+1)}=\frac{\pi^2 +\ln^2 c}{2(1+c)}$$