Let $f$: $[0,1] \rightarrow [0,1)$ be continuous.
$$\displaystyle\int_{0}^{1} \frac{1}{1-f(t)}dt= \displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \int_{0}^{1}f(t)^ndt$$
Does this result hold?. $f$ is Riemann integrable. If this is gonna be proved using definitions of Riemann integrability, then how can we choose a partition $P$ to obtain expressions for upper & lower sums?
As a side note, this is like $\dfrac{1}{1-x}= \displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} x^n$ for $|x|<1$. So, this result must hold (I believe).
Here is a proof that uses only Riemann integration theory: since $f$ is continuous and $f(x) <1$ for all $x$ it follows that the maximum value of $f$ is less than $1$. Now you can see that the partials sums of the series $\sum (f(t))^{n}$ converge uniformly. Using the following result you can conclude the proof:
If $f_n$, $f$ are continuous and $f_n \to f$ uniformly then $\int f_n(x) \to \int f(x)dx$