I was wondering if it was possible to evaluate the following integral without using the power rule for negative exponents
\begin{equation*} \int \frac{1}{x^2} \; dx \end{equation*}
When using integration by parts, you end up with the same integral in the rhs so it seems out of luck
\begin{equation*} \int \frac{1}{x^2} \; dx = \frac{\ln x}{x} + \int \frac{\ln x}{x^2} \; dx \end{equation*}
This question is inspired by this blackpenredpen's video
Using integration by parts with $u = \frac{1}{x^2}$ and $v = x$ is NOT accepted. If you write
\begin{equation*} \int \frac{1}{x^2} \; dx = \frac{1}{x} + 2 \int \frac{1}{x^2} \; dx \end{equation*}
you are still implicitly using the power rule to compute the derivative of $\frac{1}{x^2}$ so it is not correct per the rules.
The same rules apply for $u$-substitution which implicitly use the power rule. See the following with $u = \frac{1}{x}$ such that
\begin{equation*} \int \frac{1}{\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)^2} \left(\frac{1}{x}\right)' \; dx = \int \frac{1}{u^2} \; du \end{equation*}
and here the power rule is also considered used to compute the derivative of $\frac{1}{x}$ although it can be subject to discussion (geometric proof, limit definition of derivative, etc...)
Another way is to substitute $x=e^t \implies dx = e^t dt $:
$$\int \frac{1}{e^{2t}} e^t dt = \int e^{-t} dt = -e^{-t} + C = -\frac 1x +C$$
Here, only the fact that $e^x$ is its own derivative is used.