On page 524 of Tenenbaum's Introduction to Analytic and Probabilistic Number Theory (3rd edition) it is essentially stated that the solution to the first-order differential equation $$y' = e^{-x}y/x \tag{1}$$ is $$y = Ce^{-J(x)}\tag{2}$$ (for a suitable constant $C$) where $$J(x) = \int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-x-t}}{x+t}\,dt. \tag{3}$$ Now, I am able to verify that $$J'(x) = -e^{-x}/x \tag{4}$$ by differentiating under the integral sign and integrating by parts, which shows that $Ce^{-J(x)}$ really is a solution to (1), but how does one come up with (2) + (3)? Separation of variables does not get me the right answer.
(Equation (1) arises in the study of the Laplace transform $\hat\varrho(s)$ of Dickman's function; specifically, we have $(s\hat\varrho(s))' = e^{-s}\hat\varrho(s)$.)
The derivation is actually very simple, as pointed out by a friend of mine. If $y$ is a solution, then separation of variables gives, for all $0 < r < s$, $$\log \frac{y(s)}{y(r)} = \int_r^s\!\frac{e^{-t}}{t} \,dt$$ hence $$y(r) = y(s) \exp\Big(\!\!-\!\!\int_r^s\!\frac{e^{-t}}{t}\,dt\Big).\tag{*}$$ Observe that $C = \lim_{s\to\infty} y(s) = y(1)\exp{\int_1^\infty e^{-t}/t\,dt}$ exists because the integral is convergent. So, taking the limit as $s \to \infty$ in (*) yields $$y(r) = C \exp\Big(\!\!-\!\!\int_r^\infty\!\frac{e^{-t}}{t}\,dt\Big)$$ and the desired form follows on making the substitution $t \mapsto t- r$ in the integral ($\infty \mapsto \infty$ and $r \mapsto 0$).