Given is a function $f(x)$, whose indefinite integral $F(x)=\intop f(x)dx$ is known. I want to solve for $$ \intop xf(x)dx .$$
I want to apply integration by parts. Thew expression is equivalent to $\int u\,dv$ with $$ u=x, \ \ \ dv=f(x)dx $$ which implies $$ du=dx, \ \ \ v=F(x)dx. $$
Now, when solving I get $$ \intop xf(x)dx = x F(x) - F(x) $$ which is incorrect. Can someone please tell in what sense I am misusing integratino by parts here?
The rule says
$$\int uv' dx = uv - \int u'v dx$$
which in your case translates to
$$\int xf(x)dx = x F(x) - \int 1\cdot F(x)dx$$
so you were almost correct, but there is still an integral on the right side of the equation.