Using wolfram alpha,
$$-\int_0^1 \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1-xyz)}{xyz} dx dy dz = \frac{\pi^4}{90}$$
How do you solve this integral, and why is it equal to $\zeta(4)$? I can see that
$$-\frac{\ln(1-z)}{z} = 1 + \frac{z}{2} + \frac{z^2}{3} + \ldots$$
$$I=\int_0^1 \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1-xyz)}{xyz} dx dy dz $$ $$I=-\int_{0}^{1} \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \frac{1}{1-xyzt} dx dy dz dt$$ $$I=-\int_{0}^{1} \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} x^ny^nz^nt^n dx dy dz dt$$ $$\implies I=-\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(\int_{0}^{1} u^n du \right)^4=-\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(n+1)^4}=-\zeta(4)=-\frac{\pi^4}{90}.$$