I've found an integration problem from Molodova Matholympiad 2008. The problem is as follows.
Find the Integration of $$\int\limits_0^\frac{\pi}{4} (\sin^6 2x+\cos^6 2x) \cdot \ln (1+\tan x)\ \mathrm dx$$
Can anyone help me to find the full solution?


Let $f(x) = g(x)h(x)$ where $$g(x) = \sin^6 2x + \cos^6 2x, \quad h(x) = \log(1 + \tan x).$$ Then $$g(\pi/4 - x) = g(x), \\ h(\pi/4 - x) = \log\left(1 + \tan (\tfrac{\pi}{4} - x)\right) = \log \left( 1 + \frac{1 - \tan x}{1 + \tan x} \right) = \log \frac{2}{1 + \tan x} = \log 2 - h(x).$$ Consequently, $$f(\pi/4 - x) + f(x) = g(x) \log 2,$$ and we have $$\int_{x=0}^{\pi/4} f(x) \, dx = \frac{1}{2} \int_{x=0}^{\pi/4} f(x) + f(\pi/4-x) \, dx = \frac{\log 2}{2} \int_{x=0}^{\pi/4} g(x) \, dx.$$ Since $$\begin{align} a^6 + b^6 &= (a^2 + b^2)(a^4 - a^2 b^2 + b^4) \\ &= (a^2 + b^2)(a^4 + 2a^2 b^2 + b^4 - 3a^2 b^2) \\ &= (a^2 + b^2)\left((a^2 + b^2)^2 - 3a^2 b^2\right) \end{align}$$ it follows that $$\begin{align} g(x) &= 1 - 3 \sin^2 2x \cos^2 2x \\ &= 1 - \frac{3}{4} \sin^2 4x \\ &= 1 - \frac{3}{8} (1 - \cos 8x) \\ &= \frac{1}{8}(5 + 3 \cos 8x). \end{align}$$
Putting everything together, $$\int_{x=0}^{\pi/4} f(x) \, dx = \frac{\log 2}{16} \int_{x=0}^{\pi/4} 5 + 3 \cos 8x \, dx = \frac{5\pi \log 2}{64}.$$