I got stuck trying to find a general formula for the following integral $$\int_0^{\pi} t \cdot\cos^{2n}{\left(\frac{t}{2}\right)} \, dt = 4 \int_0^{\pi/2} t \cdot\cos^{2n}t \,dt \; , \; \text{ for } n \in \mathbb{N}.$$ It doesn't seem to be listed on Wikipedias Lists of integrals. After playing around for a while I found the following potentially useful identities$$\begin{align} \int_0^{\pi} t \cdot\cos^{2n}{\left(\frac{t}{2}\right)} \, dt &= \frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!} \pi^2 - 4\int_{0}^{\pi/2}{\int_0^{t} \cos^{2n}{\tau} \, d\tau} \, dt \\ &= \frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!}\cdot \left( \frac{\pi^2}{2} - \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{(2k)!!}{(2k-1)!! \, k^2} \right) \,, \end{align}$$ where I would consider the last line a solution if one was able to find a closed formula for the sum that is not given in terms of another integral or another horrible function like Wolfram Alpha suggests.
Edits:
- Moved the power closer to $\cos$ to avoid confusion.
- Corrected some constants in the identities.
- Emphasized that $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
The integral probably does not have a closed form in terms of something simpler than the hypergeometric ${}_{3}F_{2}$ unless something amazing happens with the series. I don't think you can do much better than
$$\begin{aligned} I_{n} &= \frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!}\frac{\sqrt{\pi}\,\Gamma^{2}(n+1)}{\Gamma(n+3/2)\Gamma(n+2)}{}_{3}F_{2}\left(1, n+1, n+1; n+3/2, n+2; 1\right) \\ &= \frac{{}_{3}F_{2}\left(1, n+1, n+1; n+3/2, n+2; 1\right)}{(n+1)(n+1/2)} \end{aligned}$$
where I have used the double factorial identity
$$ \frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!} = \frac{(2n)!}{2^{2n}(n!)^{2}}$$
and Legendre's duplication formula to simplify the gamma functions and factorials. The hypergeometric function reduces to elementary functions in $x^{2}$ when $n$ is an integer; for example, Mathematica gives the $n=1$ and $n=2$ cases as
$$\begin{aligned} {}_{3}F_{2}\left(1, 2, 2; 5/2, 3; x^{2}\right) &= \frac{3}{x^{2}}\left(\frac{\arcsin^{2}x}{x^{2}} - 1\right) \\ {}_{3}F_{2}\left(1, 3, 3; 7/2, 4; x^{2}\right) &= \frac{15}{8x^{2}}\left(\frac{3\arcsin^{2}x}{x^{4}} - \frac{3}{x^{2}} - 1\right). \end{aligned}$$
The linear term makes things more difficult. By making the substitution $x \mapsto \pi/2 - x$, one can use the beta function and Legendre's duplication formula to show that the related integral has a nice form
$$\begin{aligned} \int_{0}^{\pi/2}4x\left(\cos^{2n}x + \sin^{2n}x\right)\mathrm{d}x &= 2\pi\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\sin^{2n}x\,\mathrm{d}x = \pi\,\frac{\Gamma(1/2)\Gamma(1/2+n)}{\Gamma(1+n)} \\ &= \frac{\pi^{2}}{2^{2n}}\frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^{2}} = \pi^{2}\frac{(2n-1)!!}{(2n)!!}. \end{aligned}$$
Lastly, the tangent half-angle substitution can be used to write the integral in the form
$$ I_{n} = \int_{0}^{\pi/2}x\cos^{2n}x\,\mathrm{d}x = \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\tan^{-1}x}{(1+x^{2})^{n+1}}\,\mathrm{d}x $$
but I do not believe this is much easier than the original integral.