I am stuck on an intro to real analysis question that asks to prove convergence. The question follows as "Let $y_1<y_2$ be arbitrary real numbers and $y_n =\frac{1}{2}(y_{n-1}+y_{n-2})$ for $n>2$. Prove $y_n$ is convergent."
My first thought was to prove it is increasing so I can use the monotone convergence theorem. However, I keep getting stuck as my proof skills aren't the sharpest yet. This is what I have so far:
We will try to prove $y_n$ is a bounded increasing monotone sequence.
We know $y_3= \frac{1}{2}(y_1+y_2$) which is equivalent to $2y_3=y_1+y_2$
It follows that
$y_1<y_2<y_1+y_2 =2y_3$
$y_1<y_2<\frac{1}{2}y_1+\frac{1}{2}y_2 = y_3$
$y_1<y_2<y_3$
We can continue this pattern infinitely thus concluding $y_n$ is increasing.
This is where i get stuck because i do not know how to prove $y_n$ is bounded
Any help would be appreciated.
hint: $y_n - y_{n-1} = -(y_n - y_{n-2})= -((y_n - y_{n-1})+(y_{n-1}-y_{n-2}))$. Thus you have: $z_n = -z_n - z_{n-1}\implies z_n = -\dfrac{z_{n-1}}{2}$ with $z_n = y_n - y_{n-1}$. Can you find a formula for $z_n$ and then for $y_n$ then you can see which value the $y_n$ converges to .