What's the intuition of the improper integral
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}$$
Is it really integral over the entire domain $\mathbb{R}$?
What's the intuition of the improper integral
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}$$
Is it really integral over the entire domain $\mathbb{R}$?
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) dx$$
Pick any $a \in \mathbb R$.
$$= \int_{-\infty}^{a} f(x) dx + \int_{a}^{\infty} f(x) dx$$
$$= \lim_{b \to -\infty} \int_{b}^{a} f(x) dx + \lim_{c \to \infty} \int_{a}^{c} f(x) dx$$
$$= \lim_{b \to -\infty} [F(a) - F(b)] + \lim_{c \to \infty} [F(c) - F(a)]$$
$$= \lim_{b \to -\infty} [- F(b)] + \lim_{c \to \infty} [F(c)]$$
We can see that
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) dx \ \text{exists if and only if}$$
$$\lim_{b \to -\infty} [- F(b)] \ \text{and} \ \lim_{c \to \infty} [F(c)] \ \text{exist}$$