When we prove that the quotient group is indeed a group we have for the inverse element, if $G$ is a group and $H$ is a normal subgroup of $G$
$$(xH)(x^{-1}H)=xx^{-1}HH=xx^{-1}H=1H$$
We were told that the fact in the first equality that we can switch the places is because $H$ is a normal subgroup. I don't see the connection unfortunately.
For the normal subgroup we have that $xHx^{-1} \subseteq H$ but how does that relate to commutativity, if it is not given that $G$ is abelian?
Firstly, the internal product of subsets and elements of a group is associative, so we can unambiguously write the product as $\left(x H\right) \left(x^{-1} H\right) = x H x^{-1} H$ without using parentheses; or, we could use any other valid set of parentheses—like in $x \left(H x^{-1}\right) H$—if we want.
If $H$ is a normal subgroup, what can we say about the right-coset, $H x^{-1}$, in the middle of the product? We can substitute something in its place that can help you understand why the equality in the question holds.