Is it true that inverse of an element $a\in S$, a semigroup is unique? It seems like this should be logical but I just can't get it.
Any help is greatly appreciated.
[For a an elements $a,b$ in semigroup $S$, we say $b$ is inverse of $a$ if we have $bab=b$ and $aba=a$.]
What about $\mathbb{Z}^2$ with the operation $(a,b)\cdot (c,d) = (a+c,b)$?
Then $(1,1)$ has the inverse $(-1,n)$ for all $n$.
And in general, an inverse of $(i,j)$ is given by $(-i,n)$ for any $n$.