Consider a function with the property
$$f(x +y) = f(x) +f(y)$$
Now
$$f(-y) = f(-2y + y) = f(-2y) + f(y) \tag{1}$$ $$ f(y) = f(2y + (-y)) = f(2y) + f(-y) \tag{2} $$
Substituting (2) into (1)
$$f(-y) = f(-2y) + f(2y) + f(-y)$$
$$ f(2y) = f(-2y)$$
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Consider a function with the property
$$f(x +y) = f(x) +f(y)$$
Now
$$f(-y) = f(-2y + y) = f(-2y) + f(y) \tag{1}$$ $$ f(y) = f(2y + (-y)) = f(2y) + f(-y) \tag{2} $$
Substituting (2) into (1)
$$f(-y) = f(-2y) + f(2y) + f(-y)$$
$$ f(2y) = f(-2y)$$
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No. In fact the function is odd, so it's not even unless it is 0.
Note that $$f(0)=f(0+0)=f(0)+f(0)$$ Hence $f(0)=0$. Now $$0=f(0)=f(y+(-y))=f(y)+f(-y)$$ Hence $$f(y)=-f(-y)$$