The question I have is basically the one in the title: if I fix a statement $P$, is the set of all conditions $\{X_i\}$ necessary for $P$ to be true enough information for me to recover $P$?
An attempt to make the question more precise is as follows. Fix a formula $P$ in some language $\mathcal{L}$. Given a set of formulas $\{X_i\}_{i\in\mathcal{I}}$ such that the set $\{P\rightarrow X_i\}_{i\in\mathcal{I}}$ is maximally consistent, can I determine $P$ uniquely up to logical equivalence?
As an example where this is true, consider the first order language $\mathcal{L}_\text{NT}$ of number theory, and the following two statements
$$X_1 \equiv \text{"$x$ is even"} \quad X_2 \equiv \text{"$x$ is prime"}.$$
from these necessary conditions, I can determine that, for any set of conditions $\{X_i\}$ containing $X_1$ and $X_2$, if all $\{P\rightarrow X_i\}$ are simultaneously satisfied, then, up to logical equivalence, we have $P \equiv \text{"$x = 2$"}$.
Up to provable equivalence, the answer is "yes"!
Every first order theory can be associated to a syntactic category where formulas $\varphi(x_1, \ldots x_n)$ correspond to subobjects of an object $X^n$ (here you should think of $X$ as the "underlying set" of a "free model" of your theory. Then the formula $\varphi(x_1, \ldots, x_n)$ is exactly the subobject $\{ (x_1, \ldots, x_n) \mid \varphi(x_1, \ldots, x_n) \} \subseteq X^n$. This is a little white lie, but is morally correct).
Now the (definable) subobjects of $X^n$ (up to provable equivalence) form a lattice, and $\phi \leq \psi$ happens if and only if $\phi \vdash \psi$! Now what does yoneda's lemma tell us for this lattice? It says exactly that $\psi$ is determined up to isomorphism (that is, up to provable equivalence) by elements below $\psi$.
So $\psi(x_1, \ldots, x_n)$ is determined up to provable equivalence by
$$ \{ \phi(x_1, \ldots, x_n) \mid \phi(x_1, \ldots, x_n) \vdash \psi(x_1, \ldots, x_n) \} $$
Or, if you like,
$$ \{ \phi(x_1, \ldots, x_n) \mid \phi(x_1, \ldots, x_n) \to \psi(x_1, \ldots, x_n) \} $$
since $\phi \vdash \psi$ implies $\phi \to \psi$ is the top element of the lattice (True).
For more info, you might be interested in Steve Awodey's lecture notes here.
I hope this helps ^_^