Over an arbitrary ring $R$, a matrix $A$ is said to be invertible if it has an inverse with entries in the same ring. This happens iff $\det A$ is a unit of $R$.
I've always thought that the terms "invertible" and "nonsingular" are synonymous. But I think the following problem (from Artin) suggests that they are not (at least over an arbitrary ring):
Let $\varphi: \mathbb Z^k\to \mathbb Z^k$ be a homomorphism given by multiplication by an integer matrix $A$. Show that the image of $\varphi$ is of finite index if and only if $A$ is nonsingular and that if so, then the index is equal to $|\det A|.$
If I understand correctly, in this context "nonsingular" means $\det A\ne 0$. And this is not the same as invertible since if $A$ is invertible, then $\varphi$ is bijective, and the image is the whole $\mathbb Z^k$.
So, am I correct in saying that a matrix $A$ over a ring $R$ is by definition nonsingular if $\det A\ne 0$? And being nonsingular does not imply being invertible (unless the underlying ring is a field)?
Take the matrix $$ \begin{pmatrix} 2 & 0 \\ 0 & 2 \end{pmatrix}. $$ Over $\mathbb{R}$, this has inverse $$ \begin{pmatrix} \frac{1}{2} & 0 \\ 0 & \frac{1}{2} \end{pmatrix}. $$ But, it would have no inverse in $\mathbb{Z}$. Yet, the kernel of the map would still be trivial, hence it is nonsingular.