I am almost certain of the answer to this question, but cannot seem to find something to confirm it, and I feel the proof is too simple to be correct. I have studied modular arithmetic a decent bit, but am too uncomfortable in the subject to feel confident in my answer. If this is a duplicate I apologize and request to be directed to the correct answer.
The question: If a number is congruent to 1 mod 4, can it ever be divisible by a number congruent to 3 mod 4. More specifically, for positive integers $a$ and $b$, we know $a \equiv 1 (\textrm{mod} 4)$ and $b \equiv 3 (\textrm{mod} 4)$. Can $b | a$?
Counterexample, for odd $n$: $$a=3^{2n}, b = 3^{n}$$