I'm currently trying to understand the basic notions concerning infinity. I think I understand that $\aleph_0\cdot\aleph_0=\aleph_0$ but how about $\aleph_1$? Is $\aleph_1\cdot\aleph_1=\aleph_1$ i.e. is there a bijection between a line and the plane?
I did some research, but I couldn't find anything. I can't imagine such a bijection, but I couldn't find a prove for the contrary. Any help will be greatly appreciated.
$\aleph_1$ is by definition the cardinality of the set of all countable ordinals.
The cardinality of the line is $2^{\aleph_0}$. Whether $\aleph_1 = 2^{\aleph_0}$ is not an easy question to answer. Cantor conjectured that it is. In Zermelo--Fraenkel set theory without the axiom of choice, it is at least consistent that $\aleph_1$ and $2^{\aleph_0}$ are not comparable, i.e. they are not equal and neither is less than the other. With the axiom of choice, one can prove that $\aleph_1\le 2^{\aleph_0}$.
Cantor proved, however, that $(2^{\aleph_0})^2 = 2^{\aleph_0}$, so there is a bijection between the line and the plane.
Among continuous surjections from the line to the plane are Peano curves. Google that term. Getting a bijection from that can be done in a number of ways, but no bijection can be a continuous function from the line to the plane.