I've just done exercise 3.6.K in Ravi Vakil's notes and noticed that my solution does not seem to rely on algebraic closure, so I'd like a sanity check. I understand it's important to make the "classical" points the only closed points, but it seems like an extraneous assumption for the problem at hand? The problem is:
Suppose $k$ is an algebraically closed field, and $A = k[x_1,...,x_n]/I$ is a finitely generated $k$-algebra with $\mathfrak{N}(A) = \{0\}$. Show that functions on $\operatorname{Spec}A$ are determined by their values on the closed points.
My attempt is that for two different $f,g\in A$, $\operatorname{D}(f-g)$ is nonempty since there are no nilpotents, so exercise 3.6.J(a) should apply immediately...
I think the exact phrasing of the question tries to push you to view the elements of $k^n$ as being classical, and then to note that those correspond to the closed points of $\mathbb{A}^n_k$ when $k = \bar{k}$ and that evaluation is then the obvious map into $k$.
I guess I've never thought of closed points in general as being all that classical -- I don't see how to easily interpret $(x^2 - 2)$ in $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ as something having just a single set of coordinates in some affine space. There's some sort of gluing going on.
On the other hand, the hypothesis is a little misleading and I agree that your argument works for any $k$ as long as "value" is interpreted suitably. You might write to Ravi suggesting that the question begin in a more general setting and then proceed to a discussion of the "classical" case. I do think the general fact is useful at a few other places in the notes.