I know that an antisymmetric relation must meet the following condition: If x <=y and y<=x then x=y. That being said, can one consider x=x to be antisymmetric?
P.S.: Something tells me that the answer is right under my eyes, but I just cannot seem to wrap my head around it.
A relation $R$ is antisymmetric if the following statement is true for all $x$ and $y$:
To test whether this is true when $R$ is $=$, you just plug in $=$ for $R$. So the question is, is the following true for all $x$ and $y$?
Do you now see how to answer the question?