I would like to know if $\Bbb C^* \times \Bbb Z$ is isomorphic (as an abelian group) to a subgroup of $\Bbb C^*$.
Of course, they are not isomorphic: one is divisible, while the other is not. We can't apply some version of Cantor-Schröder-Bernstein, because it is wrong for the category of abelian groups (see ex. 3.1. here). I know that $\Bbb C^* \cong S^1 \times \Bbb R_+^* \cong \Bbb R/\Bbb Z \times \Bbb R$, and that a morphism $f : \Bbb C^* \times \Bbb Z \to \Bbb C^*$ is determined by $f(a,1)$ and $f(a,0)$ for $a \in \Bbb C^*$, since
$$f(re^{i\theta};n) = f(\sqrt[n]{r}e^{i\theta/n}\,;1)^n \qquad (n \geq 1)$$
But I don't know how to go further, even if my problem may be very easy.
Thank you very much for your help.
View $\mathbb{R}$ as a vector space over $\mathbb{Q}$. Since $\dim_{\mathbb{Q}} \mathbb{R} = \mathfrak{c}$, it follows that there is a $\mathbb{Q}$-vector space isomorphism $\mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{Q} \to \mathbb{R}$. Thus we have an injective group homomorphism $\mathbb{R}\times \mathbb{Z} \hookrightarrow \mathbb{R}$. This induces an injective group homomorphism
$$S^1 \times \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{Z} \hookrightarrow S^1 \times \mathbb{R}.$$