There has been talk of whether or not $\pi$ is normal, i.e. uniformly distributed in all bases $b$ where $b\ge2$. The general response has been that we expect that it is, and have found no obvious counterexamples. Does the same apply to $e$?
2026-03-29 10:09:35.1774778975
Is $e$ uniformly distributed in all bases?
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