Because $\gcd(k, 1) = 1$ where $k > 0$ is an integer.
2026-04-03 04:16:54.1775189814
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Is every positive integer relatively prime to $1$?
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What's your definition of "relatively prime"? For me, I say $a$ and $b$ are relatively prime if there is no prime number which divides both of them simultaneously.
So if I were thinking about $k$ and $1$, since no prime number divides $1$ in the first place, then no prime number can divide them both simultaneously, and so using my definition, $k$ and $1$ are relatively prime.
Yes. $1$ is relatively prime to every positive integer, including itself. $1$ is also relatively prime to every negative integer, and to $0$.
There are many definitions of relatively prime which you can use to check this, including the one you cite. For integers $a$ and $b$, the following are all equivalent:
$a$ and $b$ are relatively prime;
$\gcd(a,b) = 1$;
No prime $p$ divides both $a$ and $b$;
There exists integers $x$ and $y$ such that $ax + by = 1$;
$a\mathbb{Z} + b\mathbb{Z} = \mathbb{Z}$ (this is addition of ideals);
$\text{lcm}(a,b) = ab$.