I have a feeling this could be true for all cases, for example when I state that some fruits are not apples, does not this automatically mean that some fruits are (and vice versa)? That is, is it true that:
$$\exists x.\neg p\left(x\right) \to \exists x. p\left(x\right)\quad?$$
And what about: $$\;\exists x. p(x) \rightarrow \exists x.\lnot p(x)\quad?$$
On the other hand, I could not come up with any formal proof so I would like to hear your thoughts as to why I'm right or wrong about this.
$$\exists x.\lnot p\left(x\right) \not\rightarrow \exists x. \,\,p\left(x\right)\tag{1}$$
$$\exists x.\;\;p(x) \not\rightarrow \exists x. \lnot p(x)\tag{2}$$
$(1)$ Within a given domain (I'll use human beings in my counter-example to your proposed implications), the existence of someone without a property does not imply the existence of someone with the property.
Suppose it's true that all humans who exist are not bears; we can still assert (truthfully) that therefore, there exist humans who are not bears. But it does not follow that there must therefore exist humans who are bears.
$(2)$ Within a given domain (again, I'll use human beings in a counterexample to your vice versa "claim"), the existence of some $x$ such that $p(x)$ is true does not imply the existence of an $x$ such that it is not the case that $p(x)$ holds.