Suppose $f: \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$ is smooth, that it has a root and that $f'(x)>0$ for all $x$. Does this guarantee that Newton's method will converge (quadratically) for all choices of initial points?
2026-03-30 12:39:18.1774874358
Is $f'>0$ enough for Newton's method to converge?
36 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in NEWTON-RAPHSON
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