Is $f : (-1, 1) \to \mathbb{R}$ defined by $$f(x) = \frac{1}{x}$$ differentiable at $a = 0$?
By the definition of the derivative I get the following $$f'(a) = \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{f(a+t) - f(a)}{t} = \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{\frac{1}{a+t}-\frac{1}{a}}{t}= \lim_{t \to 0} \frac{-1}{a^2 + at} = -\frac{1}{a^2}$$
so $f$ is differentiable at $a$. However if $f$ is differentiable at $a$ then $f$ must be continuous at $a = 0$ a contradiction since $f$ is not continuous at $a = 0$.
What have I done wrong here?
The function $f'(x)=\frac{-1}{x^2}$ is not defined at $x=0$ (uniquely there) then it isn't continuous and $f(x)$ isn't differentiable at $x=0$.