Consider the function $f : \mathbb C → \mathbb C$ defined as $f(z) = \bar{z} ^2 $
Show that $f$ is holomorphic (= complex differentiable) at the point $z = 0$.
Is $f$ holomorphic on $\mathbb C$?
My attempt:
I calculated the limit as $h\to0$ of $\frac{f(0+h) - f(0)}{h}$: $\lim_{h\to0} \frac{\bar{h}^2}{h} = \lim_{h→0}$ $\frac{h^2}{h}$ $=0$
Thus $f$ is holomorphic
I calculated the same limit but for any $z_0$ in $\mathbb C$, i.e. $\lim_{h→0}$ $\frac{f(z_0 + h) - f(z_0)}{h}$. I got that the limit is infinity. So the limit exists and thus $f$ is holomorphic on $\mathbb C$
Are my attempts correct?
Your solution for a) is o.k.
b) is not o.k.
Show that
$$\lim_{h \to 0, h \in \mathbb R}\frac{f(z_0 + h) - f(z_0)}{h}=2 \overline{z_0}$$
and
$$\lim_{h \to 0, h \in i \mathbb R}\frac{f(z_0 + h) - f(z_0)}{h}=-2 \overline{z_0}.$$
If $z_0 \ne 0$ , these limits are not equal, thus $\lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f(z_0 + h) - f(z_0)}{h}$ does not exist.