According to the definition that i have studied - A non constant polynomial f(x) in F[X] is said to be irreducible if f(x) cannot be expressed as a product of two polynomials of lower degree ,
now wat iam doing is - $f(x)= x^4+3x^2+2= (x^2+2) (x^2+1) = g(x).h(x)$ where $deg(g(x)) =2 < deg(f(x))$ and $deg(h(x))<deg((f(x))$ and both $g(x)$ and $h(x) \in \mathbb{Q}[X]$ , so according to the definition what i read this $f(x)$ is reducible over $\mathbb{Q}$ , Also $f(x)$ has no roots in $\mathbb{Q}$ , as $f(x)= x^4+3x^2+2= (x^2+2) (x^2+1) = (x+\sqrt2i) (x-\sqrt2i) (x+i) (x-i)$, my doubt is - if $f(x)$ is reducible over $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ then it must have roots in $\mathbb{Q}$ ????
So it's certainly not irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$. Since $x^4+3x^2+2=(x^2+1)(x^2+2)$.