Is $ (\forall x)(A \rightarrow B \land C) \rightarrow (\forall x)(A \rightarrow B) $ an absolute theorem schema ?
- If you think 'yes', then give a proof.
- If you think 'no', construct a counter model or prove the invalid strong generalization from it.
I wanna make sure if my answer is right.
What I have tried :
Yes!
By deduction theorem , $ (\forall x)(A \rightarrow B \land C) \vdash (\forall x)(A \rightarrow B)$
(1) $(\forall x)(A \rightarrow B \land C) $ (hypothesis)
(2) $ A \rightarrow (B \land C) $ (1, spec)
(3) $\lnot A \lor (B \land C)$ (2, 2.4.11 + Eqn)
(4) $(\lnot A \lor B) \land (\lnot A \lor C)$ (3, 2,4,23(i) + Eqn)
(5) $(\lnot A \lor B)$ (4, split)
(6) $ A \rightarrow B$ (5, 2.4.11 + Eqn)
(7) $ (\forall x)(A \rightarrow B)$ (6 + Weak generaliztion , x dnof in $\Gamma$ )
See George Tourlakis, Mathematical Logic (2008) or this post for a lists of theorems and axioms.
Basically, DanulG's comment gives you the needed hint : the formula is valid; thus, by completeness is provable.
Your proof is sound.
Another proof can be "manufactured" starting from the fact that :
[easy check with truth-table].
Then apply 4.2.1 Definition (Logical Axiom Schemata of Predicate Logic) [page 139] : Ax1 : partial generalization of tautologies are axioms, to have :
Finally, apply Ax3 : all formulae of the form $(\forall x)(A \rightarrow B) \rightarrow ((\forall x)A \rightarrow (\forall x)B)$ are axioms, and modus ponens to get :