When $V, W$ are finite dimensional linear spaces, I think Hom$(V, W) \simeq V^* \otimes W$, but is this isomorphism independent of the choice of basis?
2026-04-18 13:43:51.1776519831
Is Hom$(V, W) \simeq V^* \otimes W$ naturally?
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Yes: take the map $V^* \otimes W \rightarrow \mathrm{Hom}(V,W)$ defined as $\alpha \otimes w \mapsto (v \mapsto \alpha(v)w).$