I have a ring $R$ and I want to prove (or disprove) that $R[x,y]/(x-y^2) \cong R[y]$.
My idea is to define a ring homomorphism $\phi$ such that $\phi$ is the identity on $R$ and such that $\phi(y) = y$. This means that $\phi(x) = \phi(y^2) = y^2$.
This is is an injective homomorphism because $\phi$ is the identity for polynomials in $y$ and every polynomial has a unique representation as a polynomial in $y$.
This is clearly surjective because $\phi^{-1}(p(y)) = p(y)$ and therefore it is an isomorphism.
I do not see any errors but I want to make sure that what I am writing makes sense.
Is there a more general statement involving polynomial rings? For example, here is my conjecture:
$$R[x_1, x_2, \ldots, x_n]/(p(x_1, x_2, \ldots, x_n)) \cong R[x_1, x_2,\ldots, x_{n-1}]$$ where $p$ is a polynomial in $x_1, \ldots, x_n$ such that there is a term of degree $1$ in the polynomial with invertible coefficient.
Hint. In general, $A[T]/(T-a)\simeq A$ for $a\in A$. (In your case consider $A=R[y]$ and $a=y^2$.)