This is a genuine question, I am not trying to convince anyone. But I'm sure hundreds of people already considered this, so if you can point out where I'm wrong, it would be much appreciated.
If we forget about limits and infinitesimals, then $0 = a - a$, where $a \in R$
Then $0=-0$
$\frac{1}{0}=\frac{1}{-0}$
$\frac{1}{0}=-\frac{1}{0}$
$\frac{1}{0}+\frac{1}{0}=0$
$2 \frac{1}{0}=0$
$\frac{1}{0}=0$
It also means that $\frac{0}{0}=0$
Then the usual reasoning that $\frac{0}{0}$ can't be determined because for example $2*0=0$ and also $3*0=0$ doesn't hold. We can divide both sides by $0$, but we will get only the trivial $0=0$.
$\frac{1}{0}=0$ may seem counterintuitive, but since the limits for 1/x approach $\infty$ from one side and $-\infty$ from other side, it makes sense that the value for the exact zero will be exactly in the middle.
I can offer one counterpoint for my reasoning. The 'proof' I provided is incorrect if and only if 1/0 does not belong in the set of real numbers. Then the addition of this value may not be commutative. But I'm not sure that there is any proof that 1/0 is not in R.
Edit:
Thank you all for your answers, and I apologize for trying to argue with some of you in the comments. I am not trying to start a discussion. I consider my question answered now, in fact, I have already answered it myself in the last paragraph.
What division really means is the inverse of multiplication. So 1/0 means the number you multiply by zero to get one. However, it is a property that x*0 = 0 for all x. This is the reason we say 1/0 is undefined.
This is all a consequence of the interplay of operations (addition and multiplication) on the space of real numbers. Have you studied rings?