Is it correct to say the interval of real numbers from 0 to 1 is more dense than that from 0 to n?

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If the cardinality of the set of real numbers in the interval $[0, 1]$ is $c$, and the cardinality of another set of real numbers, say those in the interval $[0, n]$ where $n>1$ is also $c$, then is it correct to say that the first interval must be more dense than the second?