Kunen in page 88 of his "Set Theory" book says:
... For a specific given $\varphi$, the notion $M\prec_{\varphi}N$ (i.e. $\forall \overline{a}\in M~~~M\models \varphi (\overline{a})\Longleftrightarrow N\models\varphi (\overline{a})$) makes sense even for proper class models but $M\prec N$ does not, since one must quantify over all $\varphi$.
Why "quantifying over all formulas" is a problem of defining $M\prec N$ for proper class models but not for set models?
Why the fact that we can't define $M\prec N$ for proper class models, doesn't produce any problem in dealing with proper class models of set theory? e.g. When we don't have a version of Lownheim-Skolem theorem for proper class models.
A good place to find details for what follows is the beginning of Kanamori's The higher infinite. The arguments below assume we are discussing (in) $\mathsf{ZF}$.
You cannot define a satisfaction predicate for proper classes in general. For instance, this would contradict Tarski's theorem on undefinability of truth. Roughly, satisfaction for $\Sigma_n$ statements is itself a $\Sigma_n$ predicate.
For set models, the relevant quantifiers are bounded, so this issue is not present. In fact, books like Devlin's Constructibility explain in detail how satisfaction is formalizable in a $\Delta_1$ manner.
Having a way of formalize full elementarity between proper classes is not always that useful anyway: If $M,N$ are proper transitive class models of $\mathsf{ZF}$ and $M\prec N$ then $M=N$, since both $M,N$ agree on ordinals, and thus (for any $\alpha$) $V_\alpha^M$ must, by elementarity, coincide with $V_\alpha^N$.
On the other hand, there are ways to circumvent some of these issues. For instance:
All this being said, yes, we need a modicum of care when handling proper classes and proper class models.