Is it necessary that $a\ge b$ to $h(n)=\sum\limits_{d^a|n}f(\frac n{d^a})g(\frac n{d^b})$ be multiplicative

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Let $f$ and $g$ are multiplicative and $a$ and $b$ are positive integers with $a\ge b$. We can prove that $h(n)=\sum\limits_{d^a|n}f(\frac n{d^a})g(\frac n{d^b})$ is multiplicative as follows. Let $(m,n)=1$. Then we have

$$h(m)h(n)=\sum_{c^a|m}f(\frac m{c^a})g(\frac m{c^b})\sum_{d^a|n}f(\frac n{d^a})g(\frac n{d^b})\\ =\sum_{c^a|m\\d^a|n}f(\frac m{c^a})g(\frac m{c^b})f(\frac n{d^a})g(\frac n{d^b})\\ =\sum_{t^a|mn}f(\frac{mn}{t^a})g(\frac{mn}{t^b})=h(mn).$$

Thus, It seems that we didn't use $a\ge b$. But Apostol's number theory book has stated this problem for $a\ge b$. So I want to know if $a\ge b$ is necessary? Thanks!

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This ensures that $d^b$ divides $n$ in the definition of $h$, so that $g$ is evaluated only where it is defined, i.e. at integers.