I cant find a counter example for a function that is Riemann integrable, but not Darboux integrable.
The only source i found on this forum is trying to prove the direction "If Riemann integrable, then Dargboux integrable". But i really doubt its truth.
Riemann integrability implies Darboux integrability
But as you can see, there is nothing interesting.
They are indeed equivalent concepts.
Let's begging with the precise definitions:
Now, to prove the equivalence, we need some lemmas:
With these two lemmas it is easy to prove the result:
First suppose that $f:[a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is Riemann integrable with integral $I$.
Then, given $\varepsilon>0$ there exists a $\delta>0$ such that for any given partition $P$ with diameter less than $\delta$, and any intermedian family of point $T$ we have that $|\sigma(P,T) - I|<\varepsilon/3$.
So, by Lemma 2, we have that if the diameter of $P$ is less than $\delta$ then $$I-\varepsilon/3 \leq s(P) \leq S(P) \leq I+\varepsilon/3 \hspace{5mm} (1)$$ ans so $$S(P)-s(P) \leq (I+\varepsilon/3) - (I-\varepsilon/3) < \varepsilon$$ Then, by Lemma 1 we have that $f$ is Darboux integrable (and furthermore, it is easy to see from (1) that $I$ is equal to both superior and inferior integrals).
On the other hand, suppose now that $f:[a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ is Darboux integrable with integral $I$.
Then, given any partition $P$ of $[a,b]$ and any family of intermedian points $T$, we have by Lemma 2 that $$s(P) \leq \sigma(P,T) \leq S(P)$$ and by definition of Darboux integral that $$s(P) \leq I \leq S(P)$$ so we have that $$\left| \sigma(P,T) -I \right| \leq S(P)-s(P) \hspace{5mm} (2)$$ Now, given $\varepsilon>0$, by Lemma 1, there exists a $\delta>0$ such that for any given partition $P$ with diameter less than $\delta$ we have that $S(P)-s(P)<\varepsilon$.
Then, by (2) we have that if the diameter of $P$ is less than $\delta$ and $T$ is any family of intermedian points of $P$, then $$\left| \sigma(P,T) -I \right| \leq S(P)-s(P) < \varepsilon$$ and that implies, by definition, that $f$ is Riemann integrable.
EDIT
The proof of Lemma 2 is immediate from the definitions, and to prove Lemma 1 is enough to prove the following result:
And, this one can be proven by induction on $p$.