I'm reading the mean value theorem for integrals and its proof:
The theorem assumes that $\varphi \in C(I, \mathbb{R})$ where $I=[\alpha, \beta] \subseteq \mathbb R$. Throughout the proof, I have not seen the continuity of $\varphi$ is used elsewhere. Hence, I though that it's sufficient for $\varphi$ to be jump continuous.
Could you please confirm if my observation is correct?

Right, $\varphi$ need not be continuous.
But it must be such that the two integrals exist. (So it is enough that $\varphi$ be Lebesgue integrable. But probably you learn this theorem before you learn about the Lebesgue integral.)
However, $f$ must be continuous to let us use the intermediate value theorem.