is it possible to $\int \frac{dx}{(x+1)^2(x^2+1)}$ without partial fractions

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$$\int \frac{dx}{(x+1)^2(x^2+1)}$$ What I tried "-

Let $$x=tan(\theta)$$

so $$dx= sec^2(\theta) d\theta$$ which gives us

$$ \int \frac{sec^2(\theta)}{(1+tan(\theta))^2 sec^2(\theta)}$$

so we have after simplification , the integral of

$$\int \frac{d\theta}{(1+tan(\theta))^2}$$

which I'm unable to integrate further , any advice would be greatly appreciated .

I have considered the weierstrass substitution but I don't think it would be of any help here

thanks!

edit:- I also considered expressing tan in terms of sin and cos, but after that there's no neat sub that works