Theorem. Let $f$ be analytic everywhere inside and on a simple closed contour $C$, taken in the positive sense. If $z_0$ is any point interior to $C$, then $$f(z_0) = \frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_C \frac{f(z)dz}{z-z_0}.$$
The proof starts with letting $C_r$ denote a positively oriented circle $|z-z_0|=r$, where $r$ is small enough that $C_r$ is interior to $C$. Since the function $f(z)/(z-z_0)$ is analytic between and on the contours $C$ and $C_r$, we have $$ \int_C \frac{f(z)dz}{z-z_0} = \int_{C_r} \frac{f(z)dz}{z-z_0}.$$
Can we then parametrize the contour $C_r$ and calculate $\int_{C_r} \frac{f(z)dz}{z-z_0}$? How to proceed?
One can proceed using mean value theorem and $r\to 0$: \begin{align} \int_{C_r}\frac{f(z)}{z-z_0}\,dz&=\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{f(z_0+re^{i\theta})}{re^{i\theta}}re^{i\theta}i\,d\theta=i\int_0^{2\pi}f(z_0+re^{i\theta})\,d\theta=\\ &=[\text{Re}\,f(z_0+re^{ic_1})+i\text{Im}\,f(z_0+re^{ic_2})]2\pi i\to f(z_0)2\pi i. \end{align}