Is it possible to solve $\int \sin^2(\pi t) dt$ without using trig identities? Perhaps by using integration by parts? I've tried the latter, but It seems that you get an infinite loop?
I would greatly appreciate it if people could please take the time to demonstrate this.
Yes. We have
\begin{align}\int {\sin(\pi t)}^2 \,dt &=\int \underbrace{\sin(\pi t)}_f\cdot \underbrace{\sin(\pi t)}_{g'} \,dt\\ &= \underbrace{\sin(\pi t)}_f\cdot\underbrace{\left(\frac{-\cos(\pi t)}{\pi}\right)}_g- \int \underbrace{\pi\cos(\pi t)}_{f'}\cdot \underbrace{\left(\frac{-\cos(\pi t)}{\pi}\right)}_g \,dt\\ &= -\frac1\pi\sin(\pi t)\cdot\cos(\pi t) +\int {\cos(\pi t)}^2 \,dt\\ &= -\frac1\pi\sin(\pi t)\cdot\cos(\pi t) +\int 1-{\sin(\pi t)}^2 \,dt\\ &= -\frac1\pi\sin(\pi t)\cdot\cos(\pi t) +t-\int {\sin(\pi t)}^2 \,dt \end{align}
From which we find that
$$\int {\sin(\pi t)}^2 \,dt=\frac{t}2-\frac{\sin(\pi t)\cdot\cos(\pi t)}{2\pi},$$
up to a constant.