I have the equation
$$\frac {f(0)+\int_0^\infty e^{-xt}f'(t)dt} x=1$$
We can also write it as $$\int_0^\infty e^{-xt}f(t)dt=1$$
How do we solve for $x$ so that this equation holds? Is it possible to do analytically for arbitrary $f(t)$?
I have the equation
$$\frac {f(0)+\int_0^\infty e^{-xt}f'(t)dt} x=1$$
We can also write it as $$\int_0^\infty e^{-xt}f(t)dt=1$$
How do we solve for $x$ so that this equation holds? Is it possible to do analytically for arbitrary $f(t)$?
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